Answered! Chapter 6 Installing a Physical Network 1. What are the three essential ingredients for a successful implementation…

Chapter 6

Installing a Physical Network

1. What are the three essential ingredients for a successful implementation of a basic structured cabling network?

A. A telecommunications room, vertical cabling, and a patch panel

B. A telecommunications room, horizontal cabling, and a work area

C. A demarcation point, a patch panel, and a PC

D. A rack, a patch panel, and a work area

2. Which term describes the cabling that goes more or less horizontally from a work area to the telecommunications room?

A. Vertical run

B. Structured cabling run

C. Demarcation run

D. Horizontal cabling run

3. Which characteristic applies to stranded core cabling?

A. Stranded core contains a bundle of tiny wire strands.

B. Stranded core is stiff and will break easily.

C. Stranded core is a better conductor than solid core.

D. Stranded core is made of one fiber optic wire.

4. What is the norm today for the number of pairs in UTP cabling?

A. Two

B. Four

C. Six

D. Eight

5. Which statement is true regarding standard equipment racks?

A. They provide safe platforms for all the different components.

B. All equipment racks are floor-to-ceiling and should be bolted into the wall.

C. All equipment racks are 29 inches wide.

D. Equipment racks come in one standard height measuring 10 feet floor-to-ceiling.

6. What is the size of a U, the equipment rack unit of measure, used for specifying height?

A. 1 meter

B. 1.50 inches

C. 1.25 inches

D. 1.75 inches

7. The __________ standard covers proper labeling and documentation of cabling, patch panels, and wall outlets.

A. IEEE 1284

B. TIA/EIA 568

C. TIA/EIA 606

D. ISO 802.3

8. Which item is part of a wall outlet?

A. A lock

B. A female jack

C. A male jack

D. A rack

9. What is the maximum length for UTP cables allowed by the TIA/EIA 568 cabling specification?

A. 90 meters

B. 200 meters

C. 100 meters

D. 1000 meters

10. What item do most professional cable installers use to quote the price for an installation?

A. The total length of the cable

B. The number of drops

C. The kind of environment

D. The bandwidth

11. What is a typical cost of a network cable installation?

A. $150 per drop

B. $10,000 per installation

C. $1,000 per 90 meters of horizontal run

D. $15 per drop

12. One reason to run cabling inside the walls as opposed to outside the walls is that it is __________.

A. simpler to install

B. cheaper

C. easier to troubleshoot

D. looks neater

13. Which condition specifically applies to UTP cabling?

A. Light leakage

B. Electromagnetic interference

C. Modal distortion

D. Dispersion

14. What are you trying to discover when you test a cable for continuity?

A. A broken wire

B. Length of cable

C. Bandwidth of the cable

D. Presence of electrical or radio interference

15. When testing for continuity using a multimeter set to Ohms, if you have a connection you will see a(n) __________ reading.

A. infinite Ohms

B. zero Ohms

C. one Ohms

D. 100 Ohms

16. Which unit is used to measure signal loss in networking?

A. Amp (A)

B. Volt (V)

C. Decibel (dB)

D. Ohm

17. If you suspect that a fiber-optic run has a break, which type of device would you use to determine if there is a break, and to identify the location of the break?

A. Multimeter

B. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR)

C. Time domain reflectometer

D. Single-device toner

18. What network component is built into most motherboards today?

A. Switch

B. Patch panel

C. Router

D. NIC

19. What type of connector is used by all UTP Ethernet NICs?

A. SC

B. RJ-45

C. RJ-11

D. ST

20. The PCIe expansion slot __________.

A. is more convenient for troubleshooting than NICs with USB connections

B. is older than the PCI slot

C. is slower than PCI

D. has a variation known as PCIe x2

21. What type of expansion slot can you expect to see in most desktop PCs today (excluding laptops)?

A. ISA

B. PCIe

C. LED

D. MCA

22. What does the acronym LED stand for?

A. Light Exchange Diagnostics

B. Low Ethernet Distance

C. Light Emitting Diode

D. Later Ethernet Development

23. Within a Windows OS, which tool can you use to verify that Windows recognizes a NIC and is ready to use it?

A. My Network Places

B. Ipconfig

C. The Control Panel

D. Device Manager

24. Most switches enable you to use multiple NICs for a single machine, a process called __________ or link aggregation.

A. dispersion

B. loopback

C. bonding

D. attenuation

25. Which type of link light is found on older NICs?

A. Activity

B. Optic

C. Duplex

D. Collision

26. Which NIC light turns on when the card detects network traffic and intermittently flickers when operating properly?

A. Collision light

B. Power light

C. TDR

D. Activity light

27. Which device provides the benefit of acting like an inverter?

A. Optical time domain reflectometer (OTDR)

B. Tone generator

C. Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

D. Tone probe

28. You support a large, complicated network. After experiencing problems and testing the cabling, you have discovered a bad horizontal cable. What should you do next?

A. Replace the cable yourself.

B. Find the break and repair it.

C. Leave the cable, string another cable.

D. Hire an experienced installer.

29. What type of tool is manufactured by Tripplet Corporation and is called a “Fox and Hound”?

A. Toner

B. Switch

C. Network sniffer

D. Cable puller

30. If you provide support for, but do not install, UTP networks, which two tools are most important to use?

A. Voltage event recorder and a good, medium-priced toner

B. Good, medium-priced toner and a good, medium-priced cable tester

C. Good, medium-priced cable tester and a voltage event recorder

D. Voltage event recorder and a multimeter

— END CHAPTER 6 —

Chapter 7

TCP/IP Basics

1. What network protocol do Apple systems use today?

A. AppleTalk

B. IPX/SPX

C. NetBIOS/NetBEUI

D. TCP/IP

2. What is the de facto protocol suite of the Internet?

A. NetBEUI

B. TCP/IP

C. IPX/SPX

D. UNIX

3. To what layer of the OSI model does the TCP/IP model’s Internet layer correspond?

A. Session

B. Transport

C. Network

D. Data Link

4. What is the range of decimal values in each of the four groups of an IPv4 address?

A. 1 to 256

B. 0 to 255

C. 1 to 1024

D. 0 to 1023

5. Which protocol is connection-oriented?

A. UDP

B. ICMP

C. IP

D. TCP

6. Which protocol uses TCP as its transport layer protocol?

A. TFTP

B. HTTP

C. SNMP

D. ICMP

7. Which port do Web servers use?

A. 67

B. 68

C. 80

D. 110

8. Which port is used to receive e-mail messages from e-mail servers (POP3)?

A. 67

B. 68

C. 69

D. 110

9. Which protocol do Domain Name System (DNS) and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) use?

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. IP

D. POP3

10. What is the universal MAC address for broadcast?

A. 0.0.0.0

B. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

C. 127.0.0.1

D. 1.1.1.1

11. What tool is used to overcome the limitations inherent in TCP/IP Ethernet networks?

A. Datagrams

B. UDP

C. Web servers

D. IP addressing

12. How many binary digits are in an IPv4 address?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 16

D. 32

13. Which IP address is valid for an individual host expressed in dotted decimal notation?

A. 0.0.0.0

B. 128-5EF-297

C. 255.255.255.255

D. 215.233.32.91

14. How long is a subnet mask?

A. 24 bits

B. 32 bits

C. 32 bytes

D. 16 bits

15. Which statement about subnet masks is true?

A. A “0” in the subnet mask indicates part of the network ID.

B. The last eight digits of every subnet mask must be all ones.

C. All machines on the same network have the same subnet mask.

D. The subnet mask length must be the length of the IP address minus two.

16. If the first decimal value of an IP address is between 128 and 191, to what IP class does the network belong?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

17. What is the maximum number of hosts you may have on a network if the first decimal value of the IP address is between 192 and 223 and the subnet mask is 255.255.255.0?

A. 64

B. 254

C. 65,546

D. 16.7 million

18. When viewed in binary, which value is always on the far left in the first octet of a Class A address?

A. 00

B. 110

C. 10

D. 0

19. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C network?

A. 255.0.0.0

B. 255.255.255.0

C. 255.255.0.0

D. 255.255.255.255

20. Which task is performed by an ISP when it takes a block of addresses, subnets the block into multiple subnets, and then passes out the smaller individual subnets to customers?

A. Dynamic addressing

B. Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)

C. Static addressing

D. BOOTP

21. Suppose your network subnet mask is 255.255.0.0. What is the maximum number of host IDs available for this network?

A. 62

B. 254

C. 65,534

D. 16,277,214

22. A Class C network block uses the __________ octets to define only the network ID.

A. first two

B. last two

C. first three

D. last three

23. Which formula would you use to arrive at the number of hosts on a subnet?

A. 2^x + 2, where x represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask

B. 2^x – 2, where x represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask

C. 2^x / 2, where x represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask

D. 2^x * 2, where x represents the number of zeroes in the subnet mask

24. What is the cornerstone of subnetting?

A. TCP

B. IP address

C. Subnet mask

D. Packet

25. Which formula would you use to calculate the number of new subnets?

A. 2^y, where y is the number of zeroes in the subnet mask

B. 2^y, where y is the number of ones in the network ID extension

C. 2^y, where y is the number of bytes you add to the subnet mask

D. 2^y, where y is the number of bits you add to the subnet mask

26. Which subnet mask is an example of classless subnetting?

A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.240.0

C. 255.255.0.0

D. 255.0.0.0

27. The decimal value 151 converts to what binary value?

A. 10010111

B. 10010110

C. 11010001

D. 10010101

28. What is the binary equivalent of the decimal value 97?

A. 01100001

B. 01000001

C. 01001110

D. 01101010

29. Convert the binary value 11010101 to decimal.

A. 198

B. 213

C. 221

D. 245

30. Which tool automatically assigns an IP address whenever a computer connects to the network?

A. DNS

B. ping

C. DHCP

D. ARP

31. What are the two names for dynamic IP addressing?

A. Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

B. IPconfig and Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

C. IPconfig and IPv4

D. IPv4 and Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

32. What command would you run from a Windows command line to test a computer’s network stack?

A. arp –a

B. ping gateway

C. ipconfig /all

D. ping 127.0.0.1

33. Which of the following is a designated private IP address?

A. 192.167.64.7

B. 172.13.0.0

C. 167.17.6.2

D. 10.164.19.5

34. What command can you use to tell a device to send packets to itself?

A. arp –a

B. ping 127.0.0.1

C. ping 255.255.255.255

D. ipconfig

35. The addresses 127.0.0.1, 10.1.1.50, 172.16.200.1, and 192.168.35.44 are all examples of ________.

A. DHCP lease addresses

B. special IP addresses

C. APIPA addresses

D. Class A addresses

— END CHAPTER 7 —

Chapter 8

Routing

1. On a TCP/IP network, a router determines where an incoming packet should go by looking at the packet’s __________.

A. destination MAC addresses

B. destination IP addresses

C. source IP address

D. source MAC address

2. At which layer of the OSI model do routers work?

A. Transport

B. Data Link

C. Session

D. Network

3. Which column in a routing table tells the router which of its ports to use?

A. Netmask

B. Interface

C. Gateway

D. Network Destination

4. When a router has more than one route to the same network, the responsibility for assigning a different metric for each route lies with the __________.

A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

B. manufacturer of the router

C. person in charge of that router

D. operating system, which must dynamically reconfigure the route

5. Which tool can be used to access a Cisco router remotely from a Windows 7 system?

A. NMS

B. traceroute

C. ping

D. PuTTY

6. Which form of NAT typically handles the one-to-many connections?

A. Source NAT

B. Static NAT

C. Port Address Translation (PAT)

D. Destination NAT

7. What is another name for dynamic NAT?

Destination port

A. Pooled NAT

B. Moving NAT

C. Hybrid NAT

D. Area NAT

8. Which type of NAT allows many computers to share a pool of routable IP addresses that number fewer than the computers?

A. Dynamic NAT

B. Source NAT

C. Static NAT

D. Destination NAT

9. Your company has a single server on the private LAN that it wants to make accessible from the Internet. Which of the following would give the server the protection of NAT, while allowing access to that server from the Internet?

A. Source NAT

B. Overloaded NAT

C. Port forwarding

D. Network Address Translation (NAT)

10. __________ maps a single routable (that is, not private) IP address to a single machine, enabling you to access that machine from outside the network.

A. Dynamic NAT

B. Source NAT

C. Static NAT

D. Destination NAT

11. Which NAT technology uses port numbers to map traffic from specific machines on the network?

A. Dynamic NAT

B. Pooled NAT

C. SNAT

D. PAT

12. Which term refers to the passage of a packet through a router?

A. Hop

B. Jump

C. Gateway

D. Metric

13. Which routing metric determines the largest frame a particular technology can handle?

A. MTU

B. Latency

C. Hop count

D. Cost

14. Which routing metric refers to the ability of a connection to handle more data than others?

A. Bandwidth

B. Cost

C. Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)

D. Latency

15. Which vector routing protocol is the oldest?

A. RIP

B. BGP

C. OSPF

D. EIGRP

16. What is the maximum number of hops allowed by RIP?

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 15

17. Which protocol is a path vector routing protocol?

A. RIP

B. OSPF

C. BGP

D. EIGRP

18. What protocol was adopted in 1994, and is now considered obsolete except for small, private WANs?

A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)

B. Overloaded NAT

C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D. RIPv2

19. Which protocol is a distance vector routing protocol?

A. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

B. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

C. IS-IS.

D. RIPv2

20. Which routing protocol does not support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?

A. OSPF

B. RIPv1

C. IS-IS

D. RIPv2

21. Which of the following could be a valid Autonomous System Number (ASN)?

A. 0.0.0.0

B. 1.33457

C. 192.168.30.1

D. 255

22. The protocol used by Autonomous Systems to communicate with each other is generically called a(n) __________.

A. Cross Gateway Protocol (CGP)

B. Mixed Gateway Protocol (MGP)

C. Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP)

D. Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)

23. Which organization assigns Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs)?

A. Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

B. Autonomous System administrator

C. Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

D. Network administrator

24. Which attribute applies to the OSPF routing method?

A. It uses a link state algorithm.

B. It uses the Cisco IOS operating system for communication.

C. It sends routing information at regular intervals even if there are no changes.

D. It has a maximum hop count of 15.

25. Which protocol is used on the Internet for communication between Autonomous Systems?

A. Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)

B. Overloaded NAT

C. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D. RIPv2

26. Which protocol is a link state dynamic routing protocol?

A. IS-IS

B. RIPv2

C. RIPv1

D. BGP

27. By convention, what is the name given to Area ID 0 (zero) of an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) network?

A. Backbone

B. Segment

C. Subnet

D. Port

28. Which value represents the core or backbone area of an OSPF network?

A. 1.1.1.1

B. 0.0.0.0

C. 255.255.255.255

D. 1.33457

29. Which routing protocol is the choice in most large enterprise networks?

A. IS-IS

B. BGP

C. OSPF

D. EIGRP

30. Which protocol is Cisco’s proprietary protocol?

A. OSPF

B. IS-IS

C. EIGRP

D. BGP

31. What is the name of the proprietary cable designed by Cisco for connecting to their routers?

A. Port

B. Yost

C. Parallel

D. Crossover

32. What is the name of Cisco’s proprietary operating system?

A. MAC IOS

B. Cisco IOS

C. NAT

D. EIGRP

33. Which tool is used by an administrator to manage many routers and obtain an overall view of all the routers?

A. traceroute

B. ping

C. Network Management System (NMS)

D. MTR

34. What tasks should be performed as soon as an administrator finishes configuring a router?

A. Run the operating system’s traceroute tool and document how you configured the router.

B. Document how you configured the router and back up the router configuration.

C. Turn of the Network Management System (NMS) and turn on dynamic routing.

D. Turn on dynamic routing and run the operating system’s traceroute tool.

35. Which tool records the route between any two hosts on a network and can be used to troubleshoot routing problems?

A. traceroute

B. ping

C. Network Management System (NMS)

D. MTR

— END CHAPTER 8 —

Chapter 9

TCP/IP Applications

1. Two computers first acknowledges the other, after which they conduct their communication. They end by closing the communication. Which term describes this communication process?

A. Broadcast

B. Connection-oriented

C. Connectionless

D. Multicast

2. Which protocol is by far the most common type of session on a typical TCP/IP network?

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. ICMP

D. IGMP

3. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) works at __________ to deliver connectionless packets.

A. Layer 1

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 3

D. Layer 4

4. Which protocol is best for simple, connectionless applications that never need more than a single packet?

A. TCP

B. ICMP

C. UDP

D. IGMP

5. Which Transport layer protocol does Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) use?

A. UDP

B. TCP

C. ICMP

D. IGMP

6. Which protocol is popular for moving files between computers on the same LAN, where the chances of losing packets are very small?

A. HTTP

B. TFTP

C. ICMP

D. SMTP

7. Which protocol does the ping application use?

A. SMTP

B. HTTP

C. ICMP

D. DHCP

8. Using the ping command, which message is displayed if your computer has no route to the address listed?

A. Destination host unreachable

B. Source host unreachable

C. Destination port missing

D. Source port missing

9. A particular multicast called an IGMP group is assigned to which address?

A. 128.0.0.0/24

B. 0.0.0.0

C. FF-FF-FF-FF

D. 224.0.0.0/4

10. Many years ago, the ping command had a bug that allowed malicious users to send malformed ping packets to a destination causing the __________ issue.

A. buffer overload

B. man-in-the middle attack

C. blue screen of death

D. ping of death

11. If you ping a device and no echo reply comes back before the 1-second default time, ping will respond with a __________ message.

A. server overload issue

B. request timed out

C. time to live (TTL) exceeded

D. hop count exceeded

12. What name is given to the port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023?

A. Private port numbers

B. Dynamic port numbers

C. Well-known port numbers

D. Listening ports

13. A Web client’s source port number, generated pseudo-randomly by the Web client computer, is classically assigned as a(n) __________.

A. well-known port number

B. ephemeral port number

C. listening port number

D. logical port number

14. What function is being used if a packet is sent to port 80?

A. FTP

B. Telnet

C. Web browsing

D. E-mail

15. Which type of port has a number in the 1024 to 49151 range?

A. Well-known port

B. Dynamic port

C. Private port

D. Registered port

16. Which term refers to ports in the 49152 to 65535 range?

A. Well-known port

B. Dynamic port

C. Listening port

D. Registered port

17. Which term refers to session information stored in RAM by a computer on one side of a session?

A. Connection

B. Packet

C. Session

D. Endpoint

18. Which term refers to another name for a session?

A. Web site

B. Endpoint

C. Connection

D. Port

19. Which command is known as the “show me the endpoint” command?

A. RSH

B. Netstat

C. RCP

D. rlogin

20. Which term describes the status for a socket that is prepared to respond to any IP packets destined for that socket’s port number?

A. Open port

B. Closed-wait

C. Established port

D. Ready port

21. Which term describes the status of a port that is part of an active working endpoint pair?

A. Open port

B. Close-wait

C. Established port

D. Listening port

22. Which switch is used with the Windows netstat command to show the process ID?

A. -p

B. -o

C. -n

D. -b

23. Which switch is used with the Windows netstat command to show name of a running program?

A. -p

B. -o

C. -n

D. -b

24. Which term defines a number used by the operating system to track all the running programs?

A. Private port number

B. Process ID (PID)

C. Socket

D. Dynamic port number

25. Which protocol is the underlying protocol used by the World Wide Web?

A. HTML

B. IIS

C. JavaScript

D. HTTP

26. Which free Web server was originally created for the UNIX/Linux platforms, but now runs on multiple operating systems (including Windows)?

A. Internet Information Services (IIS)

B. Apache HTTP Server

C. Google Chrome

D. IMAP4

27. Which protocol is the secure counterpart of HTTP?

A. SSL

B. HTTPS

C. Telnet

D. RSH

28. Google Chrome and Mozilla Firefox are examples of __________ applications.

A. Mail client

B. Web client

C. Web server

D. FTP client

29. What type of key does SSL use to encrypt communication?

A. Public

B. Private

C. Open

D. Netscape proprietary

30. Which protocol enables you to control a remote computer from a local computer over a network?

A. FTP

B. HTTPS

C. Telnet

D. SMTP

31. Which protocol is an enhanced alternative to POP3 and runs on TCP port 143?

A. SMTP

B. IMAP4

C. POP4

D. Web-based e-mail

32. Which Linux and UNIX e-mail server program controls about 20 percent of the market and only runs the SMTP protocol?

A. IMAP4

B. Eudora’s Qpopper

C. Exchange Server

D. Sendmail

33. Which TCP ports does the old active File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use by default?

A. 80 and 81

B. 25 and 110

C. 20 and 21

D. 22 and 23

34. Which protocol is used to send e-mail over TCP port 25 and is used by clients to send messages?

A. POP3

B. IGMP

C. SMTP

D. TFTP

35. What file transfer protocol uses UDP port 69?

A. FTP

B. E-mail

C. Web browsing

D. TFTP

— END CHAPTER 9 —